I see you've edited Droit du seigneurr to remove the comments in the description saying that there's no historical evidence for the practice. I assume that this means you have some historical evidence; would you be willing to cite it, please?
Topic on User talk:Goo Monster
I read from a second hand, non-scholarly source (so not great), that in 19th century russia there were court cases that said it was done illegally. And seldom in russia was abolished in the mid 19th century. Although whether Russia is part of europe or asia might be a bit ambiguous. https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/5957/did-droit-du-seigneur-actually-exist-in-medieval-europe seems to cite a scholarly source that simultaneously states that there isn't historical evidence and a case where it was explicitly in written law, although that written law also mentioned that people could pay 30 pennies to be exempted (which to me, and presumably the author of the scholarly source, seems more like an imposing way of charging people 30 pennies to get married than regular right of first night).
Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence, so thinking about it more, maybe we should put "there is no compelling evidence it happened historically".
That's probably a good idea. May I leave it in your hands to get the wording right and add the note to the page, please?
"add the note to the page, please?" Do you mean use the link I provided as a footnote or what?
Sorry, I meant "write the sentence and add it to the page".